If you are looking for Lecturer PPSC Past Papers preparation you are at the right place. This page is about the PPSC Lecturer Zoology Past Papers which was conducted by the Punjab Public Service Commission for the recruitments of various posts of Lecturer BS-17 for the Punjab Higher Education Department.
Complete Edition: PPSC Past Papers held in 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018
PPSC Lecturer Zoology Past Paper Solved held in 2018
Q1: At cytokinesis, in plants, a structure phragmoplast is formed from vesicles which originate from?
A) Lysosomes
B) Centriole
C) Golgi complex
D) Glyoxysome
Q2: An alpha helix is an example of ……. structure of protein?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
B) Quaternary
Q3: Central molecular diagram of Biology is?
A) DNA → DNA → protein
B) DNA → RNA → protein
C) RNA → DNA → protein
D) RNA→ protein → RNA
Q4: An enzyme …… the activation of energy of the reaction?
A) Lowers
B) Raises
C) Dose not affect
D) None of these
Q5: Which cell type you will prefer to take the nucleus of cloning?
A) B-cell
B) RBC
C) Embryonic cell
D) Sperm
Q6: Where you do transfer nucleus for cloning?
A) Enucleated cell
B) Enucleated egg
C) Egg
D) Sperm
Q7: With respect to outside, the inside of neutron is at rest is ……?
A) More negatively charged
B) More positivle charged
C) Same charge
D) Zero electrical potential
Q8: What is the normal resting potential of a neuron?
A) -70 mv
B) +70 mv
C) 0 mv
D) -90 mv
Q9: What are characters of stem cells?
A) Self-renewing
B) Can differentiate each other
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
Q10: Prions are made up of ……?
A) Viruses
B) DNA
C) RNA
D) Protein
Q11: Larva of a sponge is known as?
A) Planula Larva
B) Trochophore Larva
C) Glochidium Larva
D) Amphiblasula Larva
Q12: Sycone belongs to ……. class?
A) Calcarea
B) Porifera
C) Desmosspongia
D) Hexactinellida
Q13: The class corals is?
A) Anthozoa
B) Scyphozoa
C) Hydrozoa
D) None of these
Q14: A renal portal system is found in?
A) Man
B) Horse
C) Rabbit
D) Frog
Q15: These are free-living Platyhelminthes?
A) Cestoda
B) Trematoda
C) Turbellaria
D) Nematoda
Q16: Turner’s syndrome is represented by ……?
A) XYY
B) XO
C) XXY
D) XXX
Q17: Synthesis of RNA and proteins take place in ……?
A) S Phase
B) M Phase
C) G1 phase
D) G2 Phase
Q18: Why are there more males with color blindness than females?
A) The gene is found on the Y chromosome
B) The recessive gene is marked by another X chromosome in females
C) All the sons of the affected man will have color blindness
D) None of these
Q19: During meiosis, the chromosomes become daughter chromosomes during?
A) Prophase 1
B) Metaphase II
C) Anaphase II
D) None of these
Q20: The genetic disorder scale cells anemia is an example of?
A) Pleiotropy
B) Homozygous dominance
C) Epistasis
D) None of these
A) Lysosomes
B) Centriole
C) Golgi complex
D) Glyoxysome
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
B) Quaternary
A) DNA → DNA → protein
B) DNA → RNA → protein
C) RNA → DNA → protein
D) RNA→ protein → RNA
A) Lowers
B) Raises
C) Dose not affect
D) None of these
A) B-cell
B) RBC
C) Embryonic cell
D) Sperm
A) Enucleated cell
B) Enucleated egg
C) Egg
D) Sperm
A) More negatively charged
B) More positivle charged
C) Same charge
D) Zero electrical potential
A) -70 mv
B) +70 mv
C) 0 mv
D) -90 mv
A) Self-renewing
B) Can differentiate each other
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
A) Viruses
B) DNA
C) RNA
D) Protein
A) Planula Larva
B) Trochophore Larva
C) Glochidium Larva
D) Amphiblasula Larva
A) Calcarea
B) Porifera
C) Desmosspongia
D) Hexactinellida
A) Anthozoa
B) Scyphozoa
C) Hydrozoa
D) None of these
A) Man
B) Horse
C) Rabbit
D) Frog
A) Cestoda
B) Trematoda
C) Turbellaria
D) Nematoda
A) XYY
B) XO
D) XXX
A) S Phase
B) M Phase
C) G1 phase
D) G2 Phase
A) The gene is found on the Y chromosome
B) The recessive gene is marked by another X chromosome in females
C) All the sons of the affected man will have color blindness
D) None of these
A) Prophase 1
B) Metaphase II
C) Anaphase II
D) None of these
A) Pleiotropy
B) Homozygous dominance
C) Epistasis
D) None of these
Q21: Which of the following is correct for Aneuploidy?
A) 3n+1
B) 4n+1
C) 2n+1
D) None of these
Q22: The X rays diffraction studies by …… played key role to the discovery of DNA structure?
A) Watson & Crick
B) Franklin
C) Chargaff
D) None of these
Q23: The triplet code of CAT in DNA is represented as ……. in mRNA and ……. in tRNA?
A) GAA, CAT
B) CAT, CAT
C) GUA, CAU
D) GTA, CAU
Q24: In Turner’s syndrome?
A) Premature cataract is common
B) The cells contains 45 chromosomes
C) The offsprings have 50% of inheriting the disease
D) The patient is below the average height
Q25: The following is a steroid hormone?
A) Testosterone
B) Cortisol
C) Aldosterone
D) Growth hormone
Q26: Insulin is a human ……?
A) Gene
B) Protein
C) Glucose
D) None of these
Q27: Fibrinogen is found in …….?
A) Bile and produced in liver
B) Blood and produces by RBCS
C) Blood and produced in liver
D) None of these
Q28: Petromyzon belongs to which class?
A) Angatha
B) Gnathostomata
C) Protochordata
D) None of these
Q29: Lateral line system is present in?
A) Fish
B) Frog
C) Reptiles
D) None of these
Q30: Classification of Arthropoda is based on the number and structure of?
A) Eyes and winds
B) Body segments and appendages
C) Muscles and ligaments
D) Gills and heart
Q31: The True nervous system was first developed in?
A) Annelida
B) cnidarians
C) Flat worm
D) Sponge
Q32: The Uniqueness of adult Echinoderms is due to …….?
A) Penta-radial symmetry , Hydrocoele
B) Bilateral symmetry , Hydrocoele
C) Bilateral symmetry, enterocoele
D) Penta-radial symmetry , enterocoele
Q33: The larva form of liver fluke has cilia?
A) Reia
B) sporocyst
C) Meracidium
D) Metacercaria
Q34: Which of the following is evidence that molluscs and annelids may have a common ancestor?
A) They have setae
B) They have a trochophore larva
C) Neither group has lungs
D) They include both marine and terrestrial animals
Q35: The arboreal adaptations are those that help the animal to line in or on?
A) Burrows
B) Air
C) Rocks
D) Trees
Q36: Ctenoid scales are present on the bodies of?
A) Chondrichthyes
B) Osteichthyes
C) Cyclostomes
D) Myxini
Q37: Birds that fly at high altitudes need an especially efficient respiratory system because?
A) At high altitude the air sacs do not function
B) There is little oxygen in the atmosphere at high altitudes
C) At high altitudes birds flap their wings faster
D) There is little carbon dioxide at high altitudes
Q38: When cell wall is removed from plant cell then it is called?
A) Protoplasts
B) Protoblasts
C) Mytoplast
D) Prothallus
Q39: The virus used during cell fusion technique is?
A) Rous sarcoma
B) Influenza
C) Retrovirus
D) Sandal
Q40: Nucleolar organizer is separated from rest of chromosome?
A) Primary constriction
B) Chromomere
C) Secondary constriction
D) Centromere
A) 3n+1
B) 4n+1
C) 2n+1
D) None of these
A) Watson & Crick
B) Franklin
C) Chargaff
D) None of these
A) GAA, CAT
B) CAT, CAT
C) GUA, CAU
D) GTA, CAU
A) Premature cataract is common
B) The cells contains 45 chromosomes
C) The offsprings have 50% of inheriting the disease
D) The patient is below the average height
A) Testosterone
B) Cortisol
C) Aldosterone
D) Growth hormone
A) Gene
B) Protein
C) Glucose
D) None of these
A) Bile and produced in liver
B) Blood and produces by RBCS
C) Blood and produced in liver
D) None of these
A) Angatha
B) Gnathostomata
C) Protochordata
D) None of these
A) Fish
B) Frog
C) Reptiles
D) None of these
A) Eyes and winds
B) Body segments and appendages
C) Muscles and ligaments
D) Gills and heart
A) Annelida
B) cnidarians
C) Flat worm
D) Sponge
A) Penta-radial symmetry , Hydrocoele
B) Bilateral symmetry , Hydrocoele
C) Bilateral symmetry, enterocoele
D) Penta-radial symmetry , enterocoele
A) Reia
B) sporocyst
C) Meracidium
D) Metacercaria
A) They have setae
B) They have a trochophore larva
C) Neither group has lungs
D) They include both marine and terrestrial animals
A) Burrows
B) Air
C) Rocks
D) Trees
A) Chondrichthyes
B) Osteichthyes
C) Cyclostomes
D) Myxini
A) At high altitude the air sacs do not function
B) There is little oxygen in the atmosphere at high altitudes
C) At high altitudes birds flap their wings faster
D) There is little carbon dioxide at high altitudes
A) Protoplasts
B) Protoblasts
C) Mytoplast
D) Prothallus
A) Rous sarcoma
B) Influenza
C) Retrovirus
D) Sandal
A) Primary constriction
B) Chromomere
C) Secondary constriction
D) Centromere
Q41: This chemical inhibits protein synthesis in Prokaryotes?
A) Amanitin
B) Cyclohexamide
C) Penicilline
D) Chloramphenicol
Q42: Linker region have …… base pairs when nucleosomes repeat after every 200 bp?
A) 34
B) 44
C) 54
D) 64
Q43: Nucleic acids absorb ultraviolet light at?
A) 320 nm
B) 260 nm
C) 480 nm
D) 660 nm
Q44: RNA polymerase III transcribe the gene/s of?
A) mRNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) All of these
Q45: Reinnitiation of DNA duplication within the same cycle is prevented in?
A) Eukaryotes
B) Prokaryotes
C) Viroids
D) Viruses
Q46: Thymine dimmers damage in DNA is produced by …….. radiations?
A) Gamma
B) Infra-red
C) Ultraviolet
D) All of these
Q47: Which of the following is responsible to cause Klinefelter’s syndrome?
A) XO
B) XXY
C) XX
D) XYY
Q48: Which of the following is initiation codon?
A) UGU
B) UAG
C) AUAA
D) AUG
Q49: This factor is necessary for transcriptional initiation in prokaryotes?
A) Alpha
B) Beta
C) Gamma
D) All of these
Q50: Methyl group is attached to carbon number 5 of?
A) Thymine
B) Cytosine
C) Guanine
D) Uracil
Q51: The retention of the larval forms and structures in adults is known as?
A) Metamorphosis
B) Retrogressive growth
C) Paedomorphosis
D) Puberty
Q52: In the embryonic life, the RBC’s are formed in the spleen and?
A) Thymus
B) Kidney
C) Liver
D) Stomach
Q53: This germinal layer in animal embryo gives rise to lungs?
A) Endoderm
B) Ectoderm
C) Mesoderm
D) Protostome
Q54: The process by which the outside cell layer moves towards the deeper layer of the embryonic cell termed as?
A) Epiboly
B) Emboly
C) Regression
D) Inversion
Q55: In oocyte development lamp brush chromosome serves as the hub of …… activity?
A) Replicational
B) Transcriptional
C) Transitional
D) Polyteny
Q56: The development of a whole individual is technically termed as?
A) Allometry
B) Morphometry
C) Ontogeny
D) Orthometry
Q57: What is the name of a functional kidney in fishes?
A) Pronephros
B) Mesonephros
C) Metanephros
D) Opisthonephros
Q58: The hormone responsible for the Amphibian metamorphosis is?
A) Growth hormone
B) Calcitonin
C) Thyroxine
D) FSH
Q59: Plasmolysis is the shrinkage of protoplast due to ……. of water?
A) Endosmosis
B) Diffusion
C) Active transport
D) Ex-osmosis
Q60: Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous waste of?
A) Fish and Amphibian
B) Amphibian and Reptiles
C) Reptiles and Birds
D) Birds and Mammals
A) Amanitin
B) Cyclohexamide
C) Penicilline
D) Chloramphenicol
A) 34
B) 44
C) 54
D) 64
A) 320 nm
B) 260 nm
C) 480 nm
D) 660 nm
A) mRNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) All of these
A) Eukaryotes
B) Prokaryotes
C) Viroids
D) Viruses
A) Gamma
B) Infra-red
C) Ultraviolet
D) All of these
A) XO
B) XXY
C) XX
D) XYY
A) UGU
B) UAG
C) AUAA
D) AUG
A) Alpha
B) Beta
C) Gamma
D) All of these
A) Thymine
B) Cytosine
C) Guanine
D) Uracil
A) Metamorphosis
B) Retrogressive growth
C) Paedomorphosis
D) Puberty
A) Thymus
B) Kidney
C) Liver
D) Stomach
A) Endoderm
B) Ectoderm
C) Mesoderm
D) Protostome
A) Epiboly
B) Emboly
C) Regression
D) Inversion
A) Replicational
B) Transcriptional
C) Transitional
D) Polyteny
A) Allometry
B) Morphometry
C) Ontogeny
D) Orthometry
A) Pronephros
B) Mesonephros
C) Metanephros
D) Opisthonephros
A) Growth hormone
B) Calcitonin
C) Thyroxine
D) FSH
A) Endosmosis
B) Diffusion
C) Active transport
D) Ex-osmosis
A) Fish and Amphibian
B) Amphibian and Reptiles
C) Reptiles and Birds
D) Birds and Mammals
Q61: The breakdown of alveoli occurs in?
A) Emphysema
B) Asthma
C) Tuberculosis
D) Pollen allergy
Q62: The heart of class Pisces is?
A) Single circuit
B) Double circuit
C) Triple circuit
D) Open circuit
Q63: The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme?
A) Fibrin stabilizing factor
B) Thrombinase
C) Prothrombinase
D) Hydroxylase
Q64: The sarcoplasmic reticulum in the muscle cells acts as a store of ……. ions?
A) Potassium
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
Q65: This protein has anti-viral activity?
A) Interferon
B) C-reactive
C) Insulin
D) Growth factor
Q66: Ring form ribose sugar is known as?
A) Ribopyranose
B) Ribofuranose
C) Furoribanose
D) None of these
Q67: The positive charge on Histones is due to an abundance of the following amino acids?
A) Valine or Histidine
B) Arginine or Lysine
C) Proline or Methionine
D) Alanine or Valine
Q68: Ptyalin is an amylase which digests starch and glycogen to?
A) Sucrose
B) Lactose
C) Maltose
D) Galactose
Q69: Metal ions used by many enzymes to change their non-functional active sites to functional ones are called?
A) Co-enzymes
B) Apo-enzymes
C) HoloenzYmes
D) Co-factor
Q70: The breakdown of a glucose molecule in two molecules of pyruvate results in the production of ……. ATP molecules?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 36
D) 38
Q71: In glucose molecule, the number of asymmetric carbon atoms is?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q72: Which of the following is NOT an amino acid?
A) Glutamic acid
B) Aspartic acid
C) Glutarnine
D) Palmitic acid
Q73: What will be the frequency of T in a population if tasters are 64%?
A) 0.24
B) 0.4
C) 0.6
D) 0.8
Q74: The process in which bacteria take up the DNA released from lysed cells nearby or surrounding medium is?
A) Generalized Transduction
B) Conjugation
C) Specialized transduction
D) Transformation
Q75: Blood group system ABO was discovered by?
A) Bernstein
B) Landsteiner
C) Correns
D) T.H. Morgan
Q76: Which is the correct order, from smallest to largest of base pairs?
A) Plasmid, transposon, chromosomal DNA
B) chromosomal DNA, transposon, plasmid
C) Transposon, plasmid, chromosomal DNA
D) Plasmid, chromosomal DNA, transposon
Q77: Phenotype ratio of monohybrid crosses with incomplete dominance?
A) 3 : 1
B) 1: 2 : 1
C) 2 : 2
D) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Q78: Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what will be the genotype frequency of heterozygote, where frequency alleles being studied are 0.7 and 0.3?
A) 0.42
B) 0.5
C) 0.48
D) 0.21
Q79: The most abundant and best-known greenhouse gas is?
A) Methane
B) CO2
C) CFCs
D) Nitrogen
Q80: Mangrove forests are common in?
A) Bahawalpur
B) Karachi
C) Murree Hills
D) Quetta
A) Emphysema
B) Asthma
C) Tuberculosis
D) Pollen allergy
A) Single circuit
B) Double circuit
C) Triple circuit
D) Open circuit
A) Fibrin stabilizing factor
B) Thrombinase
C) Prothrombinase
D) Hydroxylase
A) Potassium
B) Sodium
C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
A) Interferon
B) C-reactive
C) Insulin
D) Growth factor
A) Ribopyranose
B) Ribofuranose
C) Furoribanose
D) None of these
A) Valine or Histidine
B) Arginine or Lysine
C) Proline or Methionine
D) Alanine or Valine
A) Sucrose
B) Lactose
C) Maltose
D) Galactose
A) Co-enzymes
B) Apo-enzymes
C) HoloenzYmes
D) Co-factor
A) 2
B) 4
C) 36
D) 38
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
A) Glutamic acid
B) Aspartic acid
C) Glutarnine
D) Palmitic acid
A) 0.24
B) 0.4
C) 0.6
D) 0.8
A) Generalized Transduction
B) Conjugation
C) Specialized transduction
D) Transformation
A) Bernstein
B) Landsteiner
C) Correns
D) T.H. Morgan
A) Plasmid, transposon, chromosomal DNA
B) chromosomal DNA, transposon, plasmid
C) Transposon, plasmid, chromosomal DNA
D) Plasmid, chromosomal DNA, transposon
A) 3 : 1
B) 1: 2 : 1
C) 2 : 2
D) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
A) 0.42
B) 0.5
C) 0.48
D) 0.21
A) Methane
B) CO2
C) CFCs
D) Nitrogen
A) Bahawalpur
B) Karachi
C) Murree Hills
D) Quetta
Q81: The environment where evaporation exceeds precipitation is called?
A) Desert
B) Tropical
C) Temperate
D) Coniferous
Q82: This step ios absent in the Calvin cycle?
A) Carbon fixation
B) Oxidation
C) Reduction
D) Regeneration of CO2 acceptor (RuBP)
Q83: Grassland ecosystems are common in Pakistan like in?
A) Chinji
B) Lal Sunhara
C) Magalla
D) Deosai
Q84: A large regional community primarily determined by climate is?
A) Biome
B) Biotype
C) Ecotone
D) Range
Q85: Which of the following trophic level represents the carnivores?
A) Producers
B) Primary consumers
C) Secondary consumers
D) Decomposers
Q86: Without this phenomenon average temperature of the earth might be less than -71°C?
A) Ozone depletion
B) Greenhouse effect
C) Deforestation
D) Desertification
Q87: Morphology similar or identical populations which are reproductively isolated are?
A) Sibling species
B) Allopatric species
C) Parapatric species
(D) Geographical species
Q88: These rocks are rich in fossils?
A) Igneous rocks
B) Sedementary rocks
C) Metamorphic rocks
D) Salt mines
Q89: Human dentition is of type?
A) Lophodont
B) Selenodont
C) Bunodont
D) Hypsodont
Q90: Darwin was strongly influenced by the book An Essay on the Principles of Population written by?
A) Erasmus
B) Linnaeus
C) Wallace
D) Malthus
Q91: Sahara desert demark the regions?
A) Ethiopian and Palearctic
B) Oriental and Neotropical
C) Ethiopian and Oriental
D) Palearctic and Nearctic
Q92: An endemic species is ……?
A) Epidemic disease
B) A taxonomist’s mistake
C) A taxonomist’s choice
D) Which is found uniquely in one place
Q93: The specimen on which the taxonomic description is based is?
A) Holotype
B) Homotype
C) Heterotype
D) Homonym
Q94: This is small locally located Subpopulation of organisms subjected to selection?
A) Cline
B) Phenon
C) Deme
D) Axon
Q95: Wildlife of Pakistan includes a unique aquatic mammal protected by various wildlife agencies?
A) Blue Dolphin
B) Porpoise
C) Sea Whale
D) Blind Dolphin
Q96: An organism that has escaped from domestication and returned, partly or wholly, to a wild state is called?
A) Native
B) Vulnerable
C) Ferals
D) Semi-wild
Q97: When a single gene effects two or more traits, the phenomenon is called?
A) Transposition
B) Transduction
C) Epistasis
D) Pleiotropy
Q98: This is a polyunsaturated fatty acid?
A) Oleic acid
B) Linleic acid
C) Palmitic acid
D) Palmitleic acid
Q99: Insulin has 51 amino acids, which are arranged in two polypeptide chains having?
A) 20 & 31 amino acids
B) 11 & 40 amino acids
C) 21 & 31 amino acids
D) 25 & 26 amino acids
Q100: In Microcephaly, the individuals are born with small?
A) Skull
B) Eyes
C) Brain
D) Hands
A) Desert
B) Tropical
C) Temperate
D) Coniferous
A) Carbon fixation
B) Oxidation
C) Reduction
D) Regeneration of CO2 acceptor (RuBP)
A) Chinji
B) Lal Sunhara
C) Magalla
D) Deosai
A) Biome
B) Biotype
C) Ecotone
D) Range
A) Producers
B) Primary consumers
C) Secondary consumers
D) Decomposers
A) Ozone depletion
B) Greenhouse effect
C) Deforestation
D) Desertification
A) Sibling species
B) Allopatric species
C) Parapatric species
(D) Geographical species
A) Igneous rocks
B) Sedementary rocks
C) Metamorphic rocks
D) Salt mines
A) Lophodont
B) Selenodont
C) Bunodont
D) Hypsodont
A) Erasmus
B) Linnaeus
C) Wallace
D) Malthus
A) Ethiopian and Palearctic
B) Oriental and Neotropical
C) Ethiopian and Oriental
D) Palearctic and Nearctic
A) Epidemic disease
B) A taxonomist’s mistake
C) A taxonomist’s choice
D) Which is found uniquely in one place
A) Holotype
B) Homotype
C) Heterotype
D) Homonym
A) Cline
B) Phenon
C) Deme
D) Axon
A) Blue Dolphin
B) Porpoise
C) Sea Whale
D) Blind Dolphin
A) Native
B) Vulnerable
C) Ferals
D) Semi-wild
A) Transposition
B) Transduction
C) Epistasis
D) Pleiotropy
A) Oleic acid
B) Linleic acid
C) Palmitic acid
D) Palmitleic acid
A) 20 & 31 amino acids
B) 11 & 40 amino acids
C) 21 & 31 amino acids
D) 25 & 26 amino acids
A) Skull
B) Eyes
C) Brain
D) Hands