CDS Solved Paper : Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2021 was conducted by UPSC on 7 Febuary 2021, for defense aspirants who want to join the IMA, OTA, AFA and INA. Lakhs of Indian aspirants attended the CDS II 2020 written exam to join Indian Army (IMA/OTA), Navy (NA) and Air Force (AFA) as an officer. If you are looking for CDS II 2020 question papers, you can download them from below as we are updating them. We are updating the correct CDS I 2021 original question papers with the answer keys for the aspirants who are preparing for the CDS exam. Also, you can download the PDF with the solution along with the explanation of the entire question.
General Knowledge Solved Questions
1. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) Real GDP is calculated by valuing outputs of different years at common prices
(B) Potential GDP is the real GDP that the economy would produce if its resources were fully employed
(C) Nominal GDP is calculated by valuing outputs of different years at constant prices
(D) Real GDP per capita is the ratio of real GDP divided by population
2. The mismatch in the regional or occupational pattern of job vacancies and the pattern of worker availability results in—
(A) Structural unemployment
(B) Disguised unemployment
(C) Altered unemployment
(D) Cyclical unemployment
3. The situation in an economy which is growing slowly along with rapid inflation (rising price level) is called—
(A) Stagnation
(B) Deflation
(C) Stagflation
(D) Recession
4. The increase in private investment spending induced by the increase in Government spending is known as—
(A) Crowding in
(B) Deficit financing
(C) Crowding out
(D) Pumping out
5. The asset or assets that a borrower pledges in order to guarantee repayment of a loan is called as—
(A) Cheque
(B) Collateral
(C) Guarantee card
(D) Bond
6. The percentage by which the money the borrower pays back exceeds the money that was borrowed is called as—
(A) Bank rate
(B) Nominal interest Rate
(C) Real interest rate
(D) Terms of credit
7. Which one of the following statements about the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931 is correct?
(A) The Government would not release those prisoners who had been non-violent
(B) The Government would not release those prisoners who had indulged in the peaceful picketing of liquor and foreign cloth shops
(C) The Congress did not agree to the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) The Congress agreed to take part in the Second Round Table Conference
8. Who among the following founded the Bill Seva Mandal in 1922?
(A) Dayaram Gidumal
(B) Gurusaday Dutt
(C) Dhondo Keshav Karve
(D) Amritlal Vithaldas Thakkar
9. In 1911, who among the following introduced a bill in the Imperial Legislative Council for introduction of compulsory and free primary education in India?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Sir Harcourt Butler
(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
10. Which one of the following statements about the Act V of 1843 relating to Slavery in India is correct?
(A) It gave the masters the right to wilfully keep their slaves tied to their estates
(B) It denied the masters the use of Courts to assert their claims on slaves
(C) The Law Courts and masters worked jointly in resolving the cases of desertion
(D) The slaves owners of the land
11. Which Maratha statesman signed the Treaty of Bassein on December 31, 1802?
(A) Baji Rao II
(B) Vithuji Holkar
(C) Daulat Rao Sindhia
(D) Madhava Rao Narayan
12. The Amara-Nayaka system was a major political innovation of which Indian imperial rulers?
(A) Cholas
(B) Chalukyas
(C) Guptas
(D) Vijayanagara
13. KIRAN (Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing) is an initiative to provide opportunities to women scientists who—
(A) had a break in their career due to family reasons
(B) are pursuing innovative research in life
(C) have collaborative projects with labs in foreign countries
(D) have leading edge projects in Nano-Science and Technology
14. NIDHI is an umbrella scheme for the promotion of—
(A) young and aspiring innovators
(B) scientific research
(C) primary health care
(D) primary education in rural areas
15. The Saubhagya Scheme aims at universal—
(A) LPG connection
(B) household electrification
(C) primary school education
(D) public health insurance
16. Mission Indradhanush aims at—
(A) reducing child deaths due to pneumonia
(B) reducing the impact of rotavirus
(C) elimination of maternal tetanus
(D) full immunisation of children
17. Which one of the following statements about the DDU-GKY is not correct?
(A) It is a skill training programme
(B) It is for rural youth from poor families
(C) Its objective is placement in wage employment
(D) It relies entirely on skill training by Government agencies
18. Which of the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana are correct?
1. It is part of Government of India’s poverty reduction strategy.
2. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for rural development.
3. It provides connectivity in rural areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 2 only
19. India’s territorial limit extends towards the sea up to—
(A) 10 nautical miles
(B) 12 nautical miles
(C) 14 nautical miles
(D) 15 nautical miles
20. Which one of the following is a cold ocean current?
(A) Brazilian Current
(B) Gulf Stream
(C) North Equatorial Current
(D) California Current
21. Identify the type of soil on the basis of the given characteristics—
1. They are rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina.
2. They are generally clayey, deep and impermeable.
3. They are mainly found in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat.
Select the correct answer from the given alternatives—
(A) Laterite soil
(B) Red and yellow soil
(C) Saline soil
(D) Black soil
22. Arabica, Robusta and Liberica are varieties of—
(A) Coffee
(B) Tea
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
23. Aluminium is manufactured from—
(A) Copper ore
(B) Bauxite ore
(C) Mica ore
(D) Manganese ore
24. Which one of the following sea ports gained significance for handling iron-ore exports to Japan?
(A) Kandla
(B) Ennore
(C) Kochi
(D) Mormugao
25. Which one of the following is not a function of money?
(A) Acts as an intermediate in the exchange process
(B) Acts as a store of value
(C) Used as the unit of account
(D) Used for regulating consumption
26. The situation where the equilibrium level of real GDP falls short of potential GDP is known as—
(A) Recessionary gap
(B) Inflationary gap
(C) Demand-side inflation
(D) Supply-side inflation
27. The excess of total expenditure of Government over its total receipts, excluding borrowings, is known as—
(A) Primary deficit
(B) Fiscal deficit
(C) Current deficit
(D) Capital deficit
28. Exchange rates state the value of one currency in terms of other currencies. Which one of the following statements with respect to the exchange rate of currency is correct?
(A) Floating exchange rates are rates in which the Governments interfere by buying or selling their currencies
(B) Fixed exchange rates are rates set by Government decisions and maintained by Government actions
(C) Under the Bretton Woods System, the exchange rates are floated in terms of rise or fall in price of gold
(D) Under the classical gold standard, the exchange rates are fixed in terms of price of dollar
29. Francois Bernier was physician to—
(A) Prince Murad
(B) Princess Jahanara
(C) Emperor Shah Jahan
(D) Prince Dara Shikoh
30. Which one of the following British firms was taken over by Soorajmull-Nagarmull group?
(A) McLeod
(B) Octavius Steel
(C) Davenport
(D) Andrew Yule
31. Which one of the following statements with regard to ryotwari settlement is not correct?
(A) In southern and western India, the ryotwari settlement was adopted
(B) Ryotwari was in principle a direct contract between the ryot and the state
(C) It means a tax contract valid for usually 30 years
(D) In principle, it strengthened the former elite, the zamindars and weakened the peasatry
32. Which one of the following statements about the British Indian Medical Service (IMS) is not correct?
(A) IMS began in 1764
(B) It recruited health professionals by means of a competitive examination
(C) Indians were never admitted to IMS
(D) The IMS was at first meant to look after the troops
33. When was the monopoly of China trade lost by East India Company?
(A) 1813
(B) 1833
(C) 1838
(D) 1860
34. National Disaster Management Authority is headed by—
(A) the Prime Minister
(B) the Home Minister
(C) the President
(D) the Health Minister
35. Which of the following statements regarding the ‘casting vote’ in the Parliament is/are correct?
1. It is cast by the speaker or a person acting as such.
2. It is cast in addition voting in the first instance.
3. It is cast in the case of equality of votes.
4. It is always cast to maintain the status quo.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 3 only
36. Equality before the law or equal protection of the laws within the territory of India is guaranteed under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 22
37. ‘Legal Positivism’ theory was developed by—
(A) T.H. Green
(B) Thomas Hobbes
(C) John Austin
(D) Patrick Devlin
38. Who among the following said that Democracy means a system of ‘Government by Consent’?
(A) John Locke
(B) J.S. Mill
(C) Jeremy Bentham
(D) J.J. Rousseau
39. Milpa and Ladang are different names for—
(A) shifting cultivation
(B) mixed farming
(C) truck farming
(D) plantation agriculture
40. Which one of the following approaches of human development was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO) and emphasised on health, education, food, water supply, sanitation and housing?
(A) Welfare approach
(B) Basic needs approach
(C) Income approach
(D) Capability approach
41. Which one of the following tributaries of river Indus feeds the canal system of the Bhakra Nangal Project ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Satluj
(C) Ravi
(D) Jhelum
42. When the rivers discharge their waters from all directions into a lake or depression, the pattern is known as—
(A) Trellis
(B) Dendritic
(C) Radial
(D) Centripetal
43. Which one of the following statements about the Coriolis force is not correct ?
(A) It is maxium at the Poles
(B) It is absent at the Equator
(C) It deflects the wind to the right direction in the southern hemisphere
(D) It deflects the wind to the right direction in the northern hemisphere
44. Chronologically arrange the following treaties/conventions signed between the Marathas and the British (starting with the earliest)—
1. Treaty of Salbai
2. Treaty of Purandar
3. Convention of Wadgaon
4. Treaty of Surat
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 4, 2, 3, 1
(B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
45. Which of the following statements about the Sanyasi and Faqir disturbances/rebellions are correct?
1. Governor-General Warren Hastings faced the persistent Sanyasi aand Faqir disturbances in Bengal and Bihar.
2. There were a number of Shaivite Naga Sanyasis who formed into armed bands.
3. Manju Shah, who led bands into Bengal from 1771, was their prominent leader.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
46. In 1943, young leaders in which one of the following districts of Maharashtra set up a parallel Government (prati sarkar) with volunteer corps (seva dals) and village units (tufan dals)?
(A) Pune
(B) Nasik
(C) Nagpur
(D) Satara
47. Who founded the Central Hindu School at Benaras which was later developed into Benaras Hindu University?
(A) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(B) Annie Besant
(C) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(D) Madame H.P. Blavatsky
48. Which one among the following is not a feature of centralization?
(A) National unity
(B) Uniformity
(C) Prosperity
(D) Liberty
49. Which one of the following is not an objective of NITI Aayog?
(A) It provides a critical direction and strategic input f or development process
(B) It functions as a ‘think tank’ in providing key elements of policy
(C) It monitors and evaluates the implementation of the programmes
(D) It offers a platform for resolution of inter-state conflicts as ‘provider of first and last resort’
50. Article 231 of the Constitution of India grants power to establish a common High Court for two or more states to—
(A) the Parliament
(B) the Supreme Court
(C) the President of India
(D) the Union Cabinet
51. Which one among the following motions cannot be made while introducing an ordinary Bill in the Parliament?
(A) That the Bill be taken into consideration
(B) That the Bill be circulated for the purpose of eliciting public opinion
(C) That the Bill be referred to a Select Committee
(D) That the Bill be referred to a Joint Committee of the House without the concurrence of the other House
52. Which one among the following was eliminated by the 44th Amendment Act of the Parliament ?
(A) Right against Exploitation
(B) Right Remedies
(C) Right to Property
(D) Right to Education
53. Identify the crop on the basis of the following characteristics—
1. It is a kharif crop.
2. Aus, Aman and Boro are its three different growing periods in an agricultural year.
3. About one-fourth of the total cropped area of India is under its cultivation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Pulses
(D) Cotton
54. Which one of the following is a type of igneous rock ?
(A) Marble
(B) Halite
(C) Granite
(D) Shale
55. Ozone layer, which absorbs the ultra-violet radiation, is found in which one of the following layers of the atmosphere ?
(A) Ionosphere
(B) Troposphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Stratosphere
56. Which one of the following statements about primary waves of earthquakes is not correct?
(A) They are similar to sound waves
(B) They can travel only through solid materials
(C) They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials
(D) They move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface
57. Alluvial soils vary in nature from sandy loam to clay. They are generally—
(A) poor in potash and rich in phosphorus
(B) poor in both potash and phosphorus
(C) rich in both potash and phosphorus
(D) rich in potash and poor in phosphorus
58. Who among the following was popularly known as ‘Lokahitwadi’?
(A) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
(B) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Jyotiba Phule
59. Who among the socialist following activists persuaded Gandhiji not to restrict the salt march protest to men alone?
(A) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Matangini Hazra
(D) Mithuben Petit
60. Which one of the following painters was not associated with Humayun ?
(A) Mir Sayyid Ali
(B) Maulana Dost Musawir
(C) Maulana Yusuf
(D) Bihzad
61. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists—
List-I (Author)
(a) Brindavan Das
(b) Krishnadas Kaviraj
(c) Mukundaram Chakravarti
(d) Rameshwar Bhattacharya
List-II (Poetical work)
1. Shivasankirttan
2. Chandimangal
3. Chaitanyacharitamrita
4. Chaitanyamangal
Codes :
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 1 2 3 4
62. Which one of the following scholars of Akbar’s court translated Bhaskaracharya’s Lilavati
into Persian?
(A) Abul Fazl
(B) Faizi
(C) Fathullah Shirazi
(D) Ataullah Rashidi
63. Who among the following was the Chairman of the National Commission for Review of the Working of
(2000)?
(A) Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah
(B) Justice J.S. Verma
(C) Justice Ranganath Mishra
(D) Justice Y.K. Sabharwal
64. M.M. Punchhi Commission on Centre-State Relations has recommended the disposal of a bill reserved for the consideration of the Union Executive within—
(A) four months
(B) six months
(C) eight months
(D) five months
65. Who among the following founded the Marathi newspaper ‘Kesari’ ?
(A) Lokmanya Tilak
(B) Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
66. Which mega public sector undertaking is designated with ‘Navratna’ status?
(A) Indian Oil Corporation Limited
(B) Gas Authority of India Limited
(C) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
(D) Bharat Electronics Limited
67. Which of the following statements with regard to the creation of a new state or alteration of boundaries of states is/are correct ?
1. An amendment has to be moved in the Parliament under Article 368 of the Constitution of India.
2. Ratification by one half of the states is necessary after the amendment is made by the Parliament.
3. The legislation can be passed by a simple majority of both Houses of Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
68. Which one of the following is the largest linguistic group of India ?
(A) Sino-Tibetan
(B) Austric
(C) Indo-Aryan
(D) Dravidian
69. Which one of the following water bodies separates the Andaman and the Nicobar islands ?
(A) Gulf of Mannar
(B) Ten Degree Channel
(C) Eleven Degree Channel
(D) Palk Strait
70. Which one of the following longitudes is the standard meridian of India ?
(A) 83°30 E
(B) 82°30 E
(C) 82°30 W
(D) 83°30 W
71. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists—
List-I
(a) Cyclones
(b) Hurricanes
(c) Typhoons
(d) Willy-willies
List-II
1. Western Australia
2. South China Sea
3. Indian Ocean
4. Atlantic Ocean
Codes :
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 1 2 4 3
72. Which of the following is/are social security scheme(s)?
1. Atal Pension Yojana
2. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana
3. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3 only
73. Which one of the following units is not a part of All India Radio’s Transcription and Programme Exchange Service?
(A) Central Archives
(B) Sound Archives
(C) Advanced Research Unit
(D) Transcription Unit
74. Which of the following statements about the Panchayati Raj System are correct?
1. All seats in a Panchayat are filled by persons chosen by direct election.
2. The ‘Gram Sabha’ consists of persons registered in the village electoral rolls.
3. The Chairperson of a Panchayat is elected in accordance with a law passed by each state.
4. All states in India have a three-tier system of Panchayats.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
75. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The elections to the Panchayat are conducted by the State Election Commission.
2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Chief Election Commissioner of India.
3. The State Legislatures have the power to make laws on all matters relating to Panchayat elections.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3 only
76. Which one of the following is not a correct description of the Union Cabinet?
(A) It is part of the Parliament
(B) It is responsible to the Parliament
(C) It remains in power till it enjoys the confidence of the Parliament
(D) A person from outside the Parliament can never be appointed a member of the Cabinet
77. Which one of the following statements about the composition of the Parliament is not correct?
(A) Representatives of the states in Rajya Sabha are elected directly by the people
(B) Representatives from Union Territories in Lok Sabha are chosen by direct elections
(C) Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members
(D) Lok Sabha has seats reserved for SCs and STs
78. Which among the following fundamental rights available to non-citizens?
1. Freedom of speech
2. Protection against incrimination
3. Freedom of conscience
4. Non-discrimination matters of employment
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 2 only
79. Which one of the following statements about the Vice-President of India is not correct?
(A) He is not eligible for re-election
(B) He must not be less than 35 years of age
(C) He is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament
(D) His term of office is five years
80. A motion of no-confidence is moved against—
(A) an individual Minister
(B) the Council of Ministers
(C) the Prime Minister
(D) a Political Party
81. Which one of the following is correct about ‘Pinaka’?
(A) It is a multi-barrel rocket system
(B) It is a type of battle tank
(C) It is an advanced submarine
(D) It is an indigenously developed drone system
82. Which one of the following is not a member of the Quad group of nations?
(A) France
(B) USA
(C) Australia
(D) Japan
83. The first phase of Exercise Malabar, 2020 was conducted at—
(A) Port Blair
(B) Mumbai
(C) Visakhapatnam
(D) Kochi
84. Hollywood actor Sir Sean Connery, who died recently, was popularly known for portrayal of the role—
(A) Rocky
(B) Captain Jack Sparrow
(C) Terminator
(D) James Bond
85. The Luhri Hydro-Electric Power Project is being constructed on the river—
(A) Satluj
(C) Ravi
(B) Beas
(D) Chenab
86. ‘CARAT Bangladesh 2020’ was a joint naval exercise between Bangladesh and—
(A) India
(B) USA
(C) Japan
(D) Thailand
87. Peninsula Shield Force is a military arm of—
(A) Organization of Islamic Co-operation
(B) Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries
(C) Gulf Cooperation Council
(D) Arab League
88. Which one of the following ships was involved in ‘Mission Sagar-II’ ?
(A) INS Shakti
(B) INS Vikramaditya
(C) INS Kesari
(D) INS Airavat
89. In the year 2020 which one of the following tiger reserves of India was declared by UNESCO as a Biosphere Reserve ?
(A) Panna Tiger Reserve
(B) Namdapha Tiger Reserve
(C) Dudhwa Tiger Reserve
(D) Pench Tiger Reserve
90. The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation System, which was in the news recently, is constructed in—
(A) Kerala
(B) Gujarat
(C) Telangana
(D) Maharashtra
91. Cell wall is not present in cells of—
(A) Bacteria
(B) Plants
(C) Fungi
(D) Humans
92. A child receives a tall beautiful plant as a birthday gift from his father with a quiz. The father asked her how she would verify whether this tall plant was the progeny of both the tall parents or one tall and one short parent plant. She could verify this through—
(A) cross-pollination
(B) self-pollination
(C) tissue culture
(D) negative propagation
93. A student was doing an experiment on increasing the cell division among plants. She asked her supervisor to suggest the
specific plant hormone for the same. Had you been her supervisor, which plant hormone would you suggest ?
(A) Abscisic acid
(B) Gibberellins
(C) Cytokinin
(D) Auxin
94. Which cell organelles have their own DNA and Ribosomes?
(A) Golgi body and Endo-plasmic Reticulum
(B) Mitochondria and Plastids
(C) Lysosome and Golgi body
(D) Vacuole and Plastids
95. Osmosis is the process of movement of water molecules from its—
(A) higher concentration to its lower concentration through a cell wall
(B) lower concentration to its higher concentration through a fully permeable membrane
(C) higher concentration to its lower concentration through a fully permeable membrane
(D) higher concentration to its lower concentration through a semi-permeable membrane
96. Growing of two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern is known as—
(A) mixed cropping
(B) inter cropping
(C) mixed farming
(D) hybrid farming
97. When we heat lead nitrate [Pb(NO3)2] in a boiling tube, we observe the emission of brown fumes. Which one of the following is the brown gas?
(A) NO
(B) N2O2
(C) NO3
(D) NO2
98. Which one of the following sub-stances do silver articles react with, that makes the silver articles black?
(A) Sulphur
(B) Oxygen
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Phosphorus
99. Which one of the following metals is kept immersed in Kerosene oil to protect it and to prevent accidental fire?
(A) Calcium
(B) Sodium
(C) Vanadium
(D) Magnesium
100. A solution contains 20 g of solute in 180 g of solvent. If the solvent is water, what is the concentration of the solution in terms of mass by mass percentage?
(A) 11·1%
(B) 22·2%
(C) 10%
(D) 20%
101. Which one of the following elements is a non-metal but is lustrous?
(A) Carbon
(B) Silicon
(C) Germanium
(D) Iodine
102. Which one of the following metals has both malleability and ductility properties ?
(A) Na
(B) Au
(C) Ce
(D) Hg
103. We are given three copper wires of different lengths and different areas of cross-section. Which one of the following would have highest resistivity?
(A) Copper wire of 50 cm length and 1 mm diameter
(B) Copper wire of 25 cm length and 0·5 mm diameter
(C) Copper wire of 10 cm length and 2·0 mm diameter
(D) All the wires would have same resistivity
104. Which of the following statements about ‘fission’ is correct ?
1. It is related with the creation of new individuals by means of cell division in unicellular organism.
2. It is related with the transformation of heavier nuclei into smaller nuclei.
3. It is related with the creation of a heavier nuclei by means of combining two higher nuclei.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
105. Which one of the following is an electric conductor?
(A) A plastic sheet
(B) Distilled water
(C) Human body
(D) A wooden thin sheet
106. A non-spherical shining spoon can generally be considered as a—
(A) Spherical mirror
(B) Parabolic mirror
(C) Plane mirror
(D) Lens
107. Who amongst the following is a pioneer in discovering the heating effect of electric current ?
(A) Isaac Newton
(B) Galileo Galilei
(C) James P. Joule
(D) J.J. Thomson
108. Which one of the following laws of electromagnetism does not give the direction of magnetic field ?
(A) Right-hand thumb rule
(B) Fleming’s left-hand rule
(C) Fleming’s right-hand rule
(D) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
109. An antibiotic is not useful against a virus whereas a vaccine is.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate reason for this ?
(A) An antibiotic can break RNA only, whereas virus has DNA
(B) An antibiotic is a carbohydrate in its chemical nature, whereas a vaccine is a protein which works well to kill a virus
(C) Only a vaccine can break the genetic material of a virus
(D) A virus does not use bio-chemical pathways which can be blocked by an antibiotic. But a vaccine can boost an immune system to fight the virus
110. ‘Sleeping sickness’ is caused by—
(A) Trypanosoma
(B) Leishmania
(C) Plasmodium
(D) Paramecium
111. Which one among the following is a free living animal?
(A) Liver fluke
(B) Wuchereria
(C) Plasmodium
(D) Planaria
112. Which one of the following is the structure of a cardiac muscle cell?
(A) Cylindrical, Unbranched and Multinucleate
(B) Spinal shaped, Unbranched and Uninucleate
(C) Spinal shaped, Branched and Uninucleate
(D) Cylindrical, Branched and Uninucleate
113. Which one of the following naturally occurring acids is found in abundance is tomato?
(A) Acetic acid
(B) Citric acid
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Tartaric acid
114. Which one of the following is used in soda-acid fire extinguishers ?
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Sodium hydrogen carbonate
(C) Calcium hydroxide
(D) Acetic acid
115. Which one of the following sodium compounds is used for softening hard water ?
(A) Na2 CO3
(B) NaHCO3 SO4
(C) NaOH
(D) Na2
116. Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime whose solution is used for white-washing walls. This slaked lime reacts with component
(A) in air to form a thin layer of component (B) to give a shiny finish. What are the components (A) and (B) ?
(A) A – O2; B – CaCO3
(B) A – CO2; B – Ca(OH)2
(C) A – O2; B – Ca(OH)2
(D) A – CO2; B – CaCO3
117. How many internal reflections of ligh take place in the formation of primary rainbow?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) More than 2
118. The direction of acceleration in uniform circular motion is along the—
(A) direction of motion
(B) tangent to the circle at the point of observation
(C) direction of velocity
(D) direction perpendicular to velocity
119. The weight of an object is due to—
(A) the net force acting on it
(B) the total of all forces acting on it irrespective of their directions
(C) the force that it exerts on the ground
(D) its inert property
120. The size of particles being studied in ‘nano-technology’ is about—
(A) 1Ã… – 10 nm
(B) 1 – 100 nm
(C) 1 – 50 μ
(D) 1 mm – 10 mm
CDS Question Papers with Solution PDF Download
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